"Not based on the written word," in contrast with a "read these texts first" approach to Zen

Is the idea that Zen is "not based on the written word" a well established principle among practitioners here?

If so, I am wondering for now about how that principle is meant to interact with an approach I do see some people taking (not just here) which seems to insist that to approach Zen it is first necessary to be familiar--extremely familiar--with certain ancient texts.

On the face of it it seems like a contradiction. If I have to approach through texts, then isn't zen based on texts?

I can eke out a way to see it as non-contradictory if I remind my self that "must be approached through" is different from "based on."

But that seems like, to me right now, a distinction in theory without a difference in practice.

And I'm not confident, anyway, that it is actually the intended distinction.

So I'm hoping just to hear some people expound on the topic!

Submitted January 03, 2020 at 07:27PM by Porn_Steal https://ift.tt/2SM4Wvv