What do the zen masters say about this?

In this thread, the op asked questions about zen, enlightenment, and the sense of being a doer/decision maker.

I responded by saying this:

Enlightenment is the realization that the self/doer is only an appearance in awareness, and is not separate or distinct from all other objects in consciousness.

Now, with that realization, or dissolving of the false assumption of identification with a separate-self, the problems of the individual still exist as objects in consciousness, but they aren't attached and cannot affect the awareness, cognizing emptiness, the sense of presence that's knowing the objects in consciousness.

So it's not as though the habits and conditioning suddenly cease upon enlightenment, or that behaviour of the mind/body is radically altered (although it can be), it's that the perspective and belief in being the volitional entity responsible for the relative problems of the mind/body is recognized as false.

After saying such, a few posters commented that what I said was bs, and dishonest, and other things, but didn't say how or why, only that it was.

So I'm curious if it is in fact contradicted by zen teachings, and if so, what the contradiction is.

Thanks!

Submitted August 02, 2016 at 02:30AM by thatness http://ift.tt/2apTEmS